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05-26-2002, 10:24 AM
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 Alec... I wasn't the least bit offended. I just didn't want to get drawn into a bunfight. Conceptually, I agree with you. "To advance" should be hugely popular -- if not in World Cup, then in UEFA Cup for sure. I can't figure out why our punters don't go after it. Incidentally, I remember the Spanish situation well. I was over there on the ground for that tournament but the guy I was making prices for asked for this one specifically. I made Spain 1/8 to qualify and 6/1 to fail. Alas, as usual, nobody played it. What were your odds, and what did the punters bet? Shawn  |
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05-27-2002, 11:27 AM
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| Shawn, I know that this isnīt the "ask Shawn, if you donīt understand pinnacles lines" - thread [img]i/expressions/face-icon-small-smile.gif[/img] , but what happens, if a match ends 0:0 with your "goals in XXth minutes" bets - loss or push ? |
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05-29-2002, 06:44 AM
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| Shawn, I don't remember the odds, I think something like Spain to advance 1.2-1.25, but I am not sure. Punters basically bet favorites to advance and made parlays of teams from different groups. All we needed was just one sensation. Norway being knocked out looked very close, but didn't happen, luckily Spain didn't qualify. AV2, I don't think you are right. Why would Pinnacle have a Russian version of its site? Also, jetman said that in tennis Olympic compete with English and Australian, not Caribbean books. So not only American customers. But you should know better than me of course. |
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05-29-2002, 01:07 PM
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| Kent... It's a yes/no prop. We wrote it that way in hopes of making it clear, but maybe we're still ambiguous? The way I meant it is that if there's no goal in the first XX minutes, "no" wins. Otherwise, as you point out, "time of first goal" is vacuous if there is no goal atall. Does this help? If not, please say so as maybe we need different wording. And, as always, thatt's my two cents. [img]i/expressions/face-icon-small-smile.gif[/img] S |
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